IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine Questions, Part 7 – Migration Manager

Following questions are related to Migration Manager of Tivoli Process Automation Engine. They are prepared to assist in studying for certification test number 000-017 i.e. Foundations of Tivoli Process Automation Engine.

Choose one of the following options and leave your answers in a comment below:

  1. The batch size of a package is the number of records that are retrieved at one time from each object in a migration group. The default value is:
    • A – 100
    • B – 1000
    • C – 5000
  2. A Package consists of following
    • A – Package Manifest, Configuration content, Compiled sources
    • B – Package Manifest, Structural Configuration content, Non-structural Configuration content, Compiled sources
    • C – Package Manifest, Structural Configuration content, Non-structural Configuration content, Compiled sources, History Data
    • D – Package Manifest, Package Metadata, Structural Configuration content, Non-structural Configuration content, Compiled sources, History Data
  3. Packages types are:
    • A – Snapshot, History
    • B – Snapshot, Change
    • C – Definition, Change
  4. Migration Manager identifies each environment unique with the help of three parameters which are:
    • A – Database connection string, host name and schema name
    • B – Database host name, database identifier and port number
    • C – Database host name, database identifier and schema name
  5. Content is migrated from source to target in stages which are:
    • A – Create, Approve, Deploy
    • B – Define, Create, Distribute
    • C – Define, Create, Deploy
    • D – Define, Create, Distribute and Deploy
  6. How many packages can be deployed at a time.
    • A – 1
    • B – 2
    • C – 10
    • D – There is no limit

IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine Questions, Part 6 – Integration Framework

Following questions are related to Integration Framework of Tivoli Process Automation Engine. They are prepared to assist in studying for certification test number 000-017 i.e. Foundations of Tivoli Process Automation Engine.

Choose one of the following options and leave your answers in a comment below:

  1. The building block of Integration Framework is:
    • A – Publish Channels
    • B – Invocation Channels
    • C – Enterprise Services
    • D – End Points
    • E – Object Structures
  2. An Integration Object can include any or all of the following fields:
    • A – Persistent, Non-persistent
    • B – Persistent, Non-persistent and User-defined
    • C – Persistent and User-defined
  3. Which of following is asynchronous channel
    • A – Publish
    • B – Invocation
    • C – Both
  4. Which of the following events doesn’t initiate Publish Channel processing:
    • A – Object events (insert, update and delete)
    • B – Application initiated calls
    • C – Data Import
    • D – Data Export
  5. Publish Channels cannot use which of the following to map XML to external system XML.
    • A – User Exits Class
    • B – Processing Class
    • C – XSL Map
    • D – JMS Queue
  6. Processing rules can be used to filter records from Object Structure
    • A – True
    • B – False
  7. Which of the following can initiate Invocation Channel processing:
    • A – Object events (insert, update and delete)
    • B – Application initiated calls
    • C – Custom Java Action Class
    • D – Data Export
  8. Enterprise services are triggered by which of the following:
    • A – Scheduled Cron Tasks
    • B – Scheduled Cron Tasks, User initiated queries, Data Import
    • C – Scheduled Cron Tasks, Data Import
  9. End Points are required by transactions which are:
    • A – Inbound
    • B – Outbound

IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine Questions, Part 5 – Security Configuration

Following questions are related to Security Configuration of Tivoli Process Automation Engine. They are prepared to assist in studying for certification test number 000-017 i.e. Foundations of Tivoli Process Automation Engine.

Choose one of the following options and leave your answers in a comment below:

  1. Which of the following statement is true about user self registration.
    • A – Initial self registered user status is NEW and workflow process for self registered user is SELFREG
    • B – Initial self registered user status is NEWREG and workflow process for self registered user is WFSELFREG
    • C – Initial self registered user status is INACTIVE and workflow process for self registered user is WFSELFREG
  2. The default security group which allows the user to change his password is
    • A – DEFLTREG
    • B – EVERYONE
  3. Start Center Template for a user can be set in which of the following application.
    • A – Users
    • B – Security Groups
    • C – Start Center Configuration
  4. The three types of Global Data Restrictions that can be applied to security groups are:
    • A – Hidden and Read Only
    • B – Hidden, Masked and Read Only
    • C – Hidden, Qualified and Read Only
    • D – Hidden, Qualified, Masked and Read Only
  5. In Data Restrictions tab in Security Groups application, select the Reevaluate? check box if you want the system to reevaluate the restriction condition when the user moves to another field by pressing the Tab key. If you do not select this check box, the restriction conditions are evaluated after you save the changes to a field
    • A – True
    • B – False
  6. To add a user to a group, you must be authorized to reassign users to that group. You do this using the Authorize Group Reassignment action in the Select Action menu.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  7. For which of the following, default GL account can be specified in Users application.
    • A – PR
    • B – PO
    • C – MR
  8. Which of the following is a valid user status.
    • A – WAPPR
    • B – PENDING
    • C – DELETED
  9. Access rights for independent security groups are merged together.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  10. If  application server is integrated with LDAP for authentication, then following operations can not be performed in the system.
    • A – Modifying Security Group assignment
    • B – Modifying Security privileges of user
    • C – Changing user password
  11. Database Configuration takes precedence over Application Designer and Data Restrictions. The order of precedence is:
    • A – Database Configuration, Application Designer and Data Restrictions
    • B – Database Configuration, Data Restrictions and Application Designer
  12. Following are the types of Conditional Expression:
    • A – Expression, Class, Action
    • B – Expression, Class, Function
    • C – Expression, Class

IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine Questions, Part 4 – Financial Configuration

Following questions are related to Financial Configuration of Tivoli Process Automation Engine. They are prepared to assist in studying for certification test number 000-017 i.e. Foundations of Tivoli Process Automation Engine.

Choose one of the following options and leave your answers in a comment below:

  1. Which one of the following is true.
    • A – Currencies and Exchange Rates are defined at System level
    • B – Currencies and Exchange Rates are defined at Organization level
    • C – Currencies are defined at System level while Exchange Rates are defined at Organization level
  2. It is good practice to create another organization when you need to specify different sets of GL Accounts, for example, for each site or location.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  3. GL Component configuration is done at which level.
    • A – System
    • B – Organization
    • C – Site
  4. Financial Periods are defined in which application.
    • A – Chart of Accounts application
    • B – Financial Application
    • C – Financial Periods application
    • D – Cost Management application
  5. GL Component configuration is done at in which application
    • A – Chart of Accounts application
    • B – Database Configuration application
    • C – Financial application

IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine Questions, Part 3 – Workflow and Escalation

Following questions are related to Designing Workflow and Escalations in Tivoli Process Automation Engine. They are prepared to assist in studying for certification test number 000-017 i.e. Foundations of Tivoli Process Automation Engine.

Choose one of the following options and leave your answers in a comment below:

  1. Communication Templates can handle attachments.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  2. Escalations are created at
    • A – Site level
    • B – Organization level
    • C – System level
    • D – All of the above
  3. When creating Escalation point, for a event in future, like days left in contract expiry, the time elapsed field should be a negative value.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  4. What the two types of notifications for an escalation point.
    • A – Free-form and Template-based
    • B – Email Notification and Workflow notification
  5. In workflow designer, which of the following node is not included in tool pallete.
    • A – Start
    • B – Stop
    • C – Interaction Node
    • D – Wait Node
  6. A wait node cannot precede a node which requires
    • A – task Assignment
    • B – user interaction
    • C – a decision
  7. A interaction node may lead to an application which is not related to the object specified on workflow process.
    • A – True
    • B – False
    • C – Only if a Task node follows the interaction node
    • D – Only if a Stop node follows the interaction node
  8. A workflow connection line may cause:
    • A – an action to be triggered
    • B – a notification to be sent
    • C – Both of the above
  9. Which of the following actions can be used to block and unblock status change on an object.
    • A – DENYSTATUS and ALLOWSTATUS
    • B – NOSTATUS and ALLOWSTATUS
    • C – NOSTATUS and OKSTATUS
  10. In Conditional Expression Manager Builder, colon (:) is used to define:
    • A – a variable
    • B – a constant
    • C – a function
    • D – a relationship

IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine Questions, Part 2 – Platform Configuration

Following questions are related to Platform Configuration of Tivoli Process Automation Engine. They are prepared to assist in studying for certification test number 000-017 i.e. Foundations of Tivoli Process Automation Engine.

Choose one of the following options and leave your answers in a comment below:

  1. There are two possible ways to validate field values which are Domains and Java Classes.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  2. There are following type of domains in Maximo:
    • A – ALN, Synonym, Numeric, Table
    • B – ALN, Synonym, Numeric, Table, Cross Over
    • C – ALN, Synonym, Numeric, Table, Cross Over, Numeric Range
    • D – ALN, UPPER, Synonym, Numeric, Table, Cross Over, Numeric Range
  3. Which of the following is true about Synonym domain:
    • A – New Synonym domain can not be created but existing ones can be deleted
    • B – New Synonym domain can be created but existing ones can not be deleted
    • C – No new internal value can be added to Synonym domain
  4. Which of the following is true about look up domains.
    • A – Look up cannot be created for Numeric Range domain
    • B – Look up cannot be created for Numeric and Numeric Range domain
    • C – Look up can be created for all domains
  5. Numeric Range domain has two kind, Continuous and Discrete. Which of the following is true about them:
    • A – Continuous has no interval defined
    • B – Discrete has no range defined
  6. If a Database configuration View joins two objects, then the two objects are specified in which fields?
    • A – Extends Object and View Object
    • B – Main Object and Join to Object
    • C – Extends Object and Join to Object
    • D – View Object 1 and View Object 2
  7. In Database Configuration, which three fields are automatically added if a persistent object is created?
    • A – ID, Number, Description
    • B – ID, Number, Rowstamp
    • C – ID, Description, Rowstamp
  8. Item Set and Company Set cannot be changed after the organization record is saved.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  9. A Site can be deleted if no records are created related to the Site.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  10. If a Site is inactive, users cannot access site-level records for that site.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  11. A site name must be unique across the:
    • A – Set
    • B – Organization
    • C – System
  12. Calenders are defined at which of the following level.
    • A – Organization
    • B – Site
    • C – System
  13. Which one of the following incorrect regarding Email Listeners.
    • A – They can monitor multiple email accounts
    • B – They can handle digitally signed emails
    • C – They can handle attachments and store them on the server
    • D – They can be used change status of records based on security settings of the user
  14. Changes to Cron Task setup require server  restart to take effect.
    • A – True
    • B – False

Passed IBM Exam 000-015: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation

Couple of days ago, I took IBM Exam 015 (Maximo EAM 7.1). The exam focuses on functional knowledge of IBM Maximo EAM.

Mainly, I used IBM Red Book for preparation, it took about 10 days to go through it. Below are the quizzes, I prepared while going through the certification guide.

IBM Tivoli Process Automation Engine Quiz 1 – Installation

Following questions are related to Installation of Tivoli Process Automation Engine and it’s components. They are prepared to assist in studying for certification test number 000-017 i.e. Foundations of Tivoli Process Automation Engine.

Choose one of the following options and leave your answers in a comment below:

  1. Two product that have Tivoli Process Automation Engine as their foundation cannot be installed on the same machine.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  2. The different components of the middle ware are:
    • A – Database, Application Server, HTTP Server, Directory Server
    • B – Database, Application Server, Directory Server
    • C – Database, Application Server, HTTP Server
    • D – Database, Application Server, HTTP Server, Directory Server, Administrative System
  3. Custom deployment requires the ISM installation to be spread across multiple systems.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  4. Which of the following is true
    • A – Work Plan can be created through a Job Plan
    • B – Job Plan can be created through a Work Plan
    • C – Both of the above
  5. To install middle ware on multiple machines, middle ware installer can be executed from a single machine which will configure all systems.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  6. The middle ware installer records the installation options in directory referred as workspace. Workspace consists of:
    • A – setting.xml file
    • B – Log files
    • C – Deployment and Logs
    • D – Deployment Plan, Topology and Log files
  7. WebSphere Application Server must be installed before directory server so that you can secure it with directory server.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  8. The database connection parameters for Tivoli Process Automation Engine is stored in which of the following configuration file.
    • A – maximo.properties
    • B – config.xml
    • C – connection.properties
    • D – db.connection.properties
  9. A JMS messaging engine must be configured with a persistent data store in order to ensure that any data sent to the Tivoli process automation engine’s Integration Framework for retrieval of financial data into the Tivoli process automation engine can survive restarts and failures.
    • A – True
    • B – False

IBM Maximo EAM Quiz 7 – Work Management Module

Following questions are related to Work Management Module of IBM Maximo Enterprise Asset Management. They may help in preparation of certification test number 000-015 i.e. IBM Maximo Enterprise Management v7.1 Implementation.

Choose one of the following options and leave your answers in a comment below:

  1. If work order is waiting for material to start, the status will be
    • A – No is no specific status for this scenario
    • B – WPCOND
    • C – WMATL
  2. Edit History Work Order action allows to edit some information on history work orders. Which of the following can be edited
    • A – Actual Material
    • B – Actual Labor
    • C – Planned Labor
    • D – Tasks
  3. There are limits to change data on Work Order based on its status. There limits can be configured in Work Order Options -> Edit Rules option in Organization application.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  4. Which of the following is true
    • A – Work Plan can be created through a Job Plan
    • B – Job Plan can be created through a Work Plan
    • C – Both of the above
  5. Maximo can be configured to prompt for downtime report on completion of work order if the asset is down. This can be configured in:
    • A – Work Type action in Organizations application
    • B – Other Organization Options in Organization application
  6. Choose the correct one:
    • A – Flow Action field on Work Order specifies the action to be performed when the work order is started via Flow Control Process
    • B – Flow Action field on Work Order specifies the action to be performed when the work order is completed via Flow Control Process
  7. The Predecessors field, located in each task, is used to define the task predecessors that enable tasks to start in a planned sequence.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  8. Hazards can be of three types:
    • A – Precautions, Hazardous Material, Tag Outs and Lock Out
    • B – Precautions, Hazardous Material and Tag Outs
    • C – Hazards, Precautions and Tag Out/Lock Out
  9. Following can be associated to a Job Plan on Work Assets tab.
    • A – Assets and Locations
    • B – Assets
    • C – Assets, Locations and Rotating Items
  10. A work order created from Quick Reporting application has which of the following status.
    • WAPPR
    • APPR
    • INPRG

IBM Maximo EAM Quiz 6 – Resources Module

Following questions are related to Resources Module of IBM Maximo Enterprise Asset Management. They may help in preparation of certification test number 000-015 i.e. IBM Maximo Enterprise Management v7.1 Implementation.

Choose one of the following options and leave your answers in a comment below:

  1. To use Assignment Manager to schedule work, labor record should either have a calender or a shift defined.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  2. If status of a labor record is changed to Inactive, the associated Person record becomes Inactive automatically.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  3. A calender may have one or more shifts.
    • A – True
    • B – False
  4. Calender and shift can be specified on Asset records
    • A – True
    • B – False
  5. Choose the correct one:
    • A – A certificate is mandatory for a Qualification
    • B – A certificate is optional for a Qualification
  6. When a person availability doesn’t match the calender for a specific:
    • A – A separate calender should be created for that person
    • B – Modify Person Availability action should be used from Person application
    • C – Modify Person Availability action should be used from Labor application
  7. Premium Pay Codes can be defined as a
    • A – Multiplier
    • B – Increment
    • C – Hourly rate
    • D – Hourly rate or Multiplier
    • E – All of the above